Prerequisite
Where magic happens
In modular arithmetic, multiplication, addition and subtraction are generally acceptable. That is,
$a \equiv x \pmod{m}$ & $ b \equiv y \pmod{m} $, then:In modular arithmetic, multiplication, addition and subtraction are generally acceptable. That is,
$a \pm b \equiv x \pm y \pmod{m}$
$ab \equiv xy \pmod{m}$
However, we have to be more careful with division or cancellation. In general, it's not true that:
$ a$x $\equiv$$ b$x $\pmod{m} \Rightarrow a \equiv b \pmod{m}$. Cancellation like that is only allowed when $(a,m)=1$ (when $a,m$ share no common factor besides $1$).
It's not true that $4 \equiv 4.2 \pmod{4} \Rightarrow 1 \equiv 2 \pmod{4}$. The reason is obvious. If $ax \equiv bx \pmod{m}$ then $x(a-b) \equiv 0 \pmod{m}$. In other words, $x(a-b) \vdots m$ ( The notation $m|x(a-b)$ means the same thing, but is more common ). So if $(x,m)=1$, all the burden will be carried by $(a-b)$. This means $m|(a-b)$ or $a-b \equiv 0 \pmod{m}$ or $a \equiv b \pmod{m}$.
Otherwise, if $(x,m)=d>1$ then $ a-b$ only have to be divisible by $\frac{m}{d}$. That is $ a \equiv b \pmod{\frac{m}{d}}$
We call a list of all "necessary" remainders mod $m$ a complete residue class of $m$. For simplicity, just think of it as $0,1,2,3,...,m-1$. For example, a complete residue class of $7$ is $0,1,2,3,4,5,6$. It should be obvious why this class contains all the "necessary" remainders. Inclusion of $7$ or $8$ would be unnecessary, since $ 7 \equiv 0 \pmod{7}$ and $ 8 = 7+1 \equiv 1 \pmod{7}$. A complete class of $m$ will have $m$ members, none of which is congruent to one another.
We will now prove the Little Fermat Theorem, which claims that $a^{p-1} \equiv 1 \pmod{p}$ with $p$ being a prime and $(a,p)=1$.
Let this complete class excluding $0$ of $p$: $\{1,2,3,...,p-1\}$ be $S$. Consider $aS$, which is $\{a,2a,..,(p-1)a\}$. We claim that $aS$ contains all the elements of $S$, but in random order. This is equivalent to proving that $aS$ is a complete class of $p$, excluding $0$. Since we already have $m-1$ members in $aS$, we only need to prove that no two of them are congruent. Assume $ax \equiv ay \pmod{m}$. Then, direct cancellation is allowed since $(a,m)=1$. This leads to $x \equiv y \pmod{m}$. Since $x,y$ are members of the original complete class, $x,y$ are distinct, and so are $x,y$.
We have $a.2a.3a...(p-1)a \equiv 1.2.3...(p-1) \pmod{p}$. So $a^{p-1} (p-1)! \equiv (p-1)! \pmod{m}$. Again, since $p$ is a prime, it's relatively prime to every single member of $S$. That is $(p,x)=1$ for $x \in \{1,2,3,..,p-1\}$. Cancellation is allowed for every $x$, so why not cancel them all!
This leaves $a^{p-1} \equiv 1 \pmod{m}$ as claimed.
Extra
Fermat is notorious for stating very hard theorems and claiming that he could prove them. The theorem above was not an exception. In a letter to his friend, Fermat wrote: "And this proposition is generally true for all series [sic] and for all prime numbers; I would send you a demonstration of it, if I did not fear going on for too long".
Exercise
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